Sorry if my question hasn’t been clear enough. Here is an exemple of what I had in mind: I was wondering, what your oppinion is, relating to such claims like those on the part of the Israeli AF, according to which, they have shot down 29 Syrian AF fighters on 09-06-1982, to no loss, another 35 syrian fighters the next day, to no loss, and about 100 syrian planes in total, by the end of July 1982, to the loss of a single RF-4E, and an A-4 downed by SA-7.
“Within half an hour, we shot down about 26 MiGs,” David Ivry, who was second in command of the IAF at the time, previously told Air Force Magazine. See http://forum.keypublishing.co.uk/showthread.php?t=69154,
also “the tally grew so, that by noon on Friday (11-06-1982), when a cease-fire took effect, IAF pilots had shot down 82 airplanes whithout losing any in air combat”
(see http://www.afa.org/magazine/June2002/0602bekaa.pdf).
Another similar case, is represented by the RAF pilots’ claims, to have scored 26 shoot-downs and 9 probables, to the loss of a single Gladiator, during an engagement with the Regia Aeronautica, over the greco-italian front, on 28-02-1941.
(see http://www.geocities.com/acrawford0/80RAF.html).
So, what do you folks think about these, or other similar claims? How likely is it, that events have unfolded the way described, or else said, to what percent should the claimed scores perhaps be reduced, in order to obtain a picture, somehow close to reality?
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